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Hi all,
I am currently investigating both 'pi' and 'phi' from the bottom up, so to speak. its been quite a few years since I studied maths and am wondering if anyone can show me where the '4 over 3' 'comes from' in the formula for finding the volume of a sphere:
V = (4/3) * pi * r^3
many thanks,
nick
I am currently investigating both 'pi' and 'phi' from the bottom up, so to speak. its been quite a few years since I studied maths and am wondering if anyone can show me where the '4 over 3' 'comes from' in the formula for finding the volume of a sphere:
V = (4/3) * pi * r^3
many thanks,
nick
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United Kingdom
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Re: formula for volume of a sphere - where does the 4 over 3 come from?
Fri, October 31, 2008 - 8:11 PMDespite being a bit condescending, there is a useful answer at mathforum.org/library/drm...w/66638.html and in general, a variety of useful information can be discovered by googling "Volume of a sphere derivation." -
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Re: formula for volume of a sphere - where does the 4 over 3 come from?
Fri, October 31, 2008 - 8:21 PMExcellent John, thanks so much, that link is perfect.. :)
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